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« Shakespeare Titian I | Main | Leonardo Exhibition Security Debate »



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Francis DeStefano

In 1563 Arthur Golding, the uncle of the Earl of Oxford, translated Ovid's Metamorphoses into English. Some think he was Oxford's Latin tutor as well.


Edward Goldberg

Working in the other direction, to how many aristocratic houses and collections did William Shakespeare have access? Where might he have gone to see works of art, I wonder? We now have thirty copies and ten prints (with many more that have presumably left no trace.) Not to mention the copies of copies, and free variants, especially by way of the decortive arts... At a few degrees of separation, almost anything is possible... even likely!

David Packwood

Frank, I read that.

Edward, that point about entry into aristocratic collections came up in conversation today, believe it or not. Thanks for stopping by.

Edward Goldberg

Thanks, David! I am enjoying your site very much. Many years ago, a teacher of mine proposed the "theory of the missing middle" when it came to artistic influence. "Unless we have absolute evidence linking one specific work of art to another specific work of art, the connection is probably yet another work of art - perhaps derivative or related - that no longer survives or at least, hasn't been identified." There were a few cultivated Italianists in Shakespeare's England but not very many,I don't think. And visual perceptions were probably most influenced by Netherlandish painters, often with Italianizing elements in their work. If Shakespeare didn't know the prints after Titian, some of the Haarlem Mannerists did!

David Packwood

Thanks Edward for your nice comments.

The missing middle theory is an interesting one. I'll bear that in mind. I don't think art historians use it much which doesn't surprise me.

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